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From: Tom Weidig (thestutteringbrain.blogspot.com)
Date: 19 Oct 2005
Time: 10:42:12 -0500
Remote Name: 84.138.168.152
Hi, after answering too many questions, I have a question myself! :-) I have realised that I do not really know anything about how children had spoken before becoming dsyfluent. I always thought that they only spoke in sounds but once they start with grammatically correct sentence they become dyfluent. But now I have the impression that they are fluent before becoming dysfluent. So are all children fluent before they become dysfluent? Why? If they have structural weaknesses (due to genetics or neurological incident) they should have never been fluent in the first instance?? And a neurotransmitter imbalance would make more sense?